If my memory holds, a medieval English king ruled that noble lands were falsely held and should be returned to the crown. Parliament, of course, rejected this seizure. King and parliament compromised that only claims proven to date back to a certain prior reign were legitimate.
I've queried dozens of search terms and scanned (i.e. Cmd+F, "land") the Wikipedia entries for the kings of the the 13th and 14th centuries. I can't find which king decreed this law, and thus turn to you:
Which English king demanded the return of lands to the crown, ultimately compromising that land with claims prior to - - were legitimate?
This question is spurred by learning today that time immemorial once legally meant before the reign of Edward II - leading me to wonder if Edward II was the monarch whose reign legitimated land claims. Why time immemorial was tied to Edward II's is not, though, the focus of this question.
Edit: This final tangent is, it seems, contentious. Thi terse source sets Edward II's reign as the legal event horizon, whereas this blog and Wikipedia more expansively refer to the 1295 Statute of Westminster, which recognizes Richard I's reign as relevant. More supported, the latter appears more likely - leaving the question of why some sources refer to Edward II. However, again, this is not the point of this question.